Amara asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 2 months ago

Why were Europeans the ones to conquer so much of our planet? Why didn’t the Chinese, or the Inca, become masters of the globe instead? ?

22 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    Oh I know which Amara this is. The nasty Ethiopian girl from bbm who talks a lot of crap about white people. You are just jealous that white people in history have many accomplishments and success. That their empire was strong in defeating other nations. Not only were white people strong and successful but they were good people too. Ended slavery which your ancestors didn’t want to stop and still continue slavery in Africa. Africans are superstitious and still practice voodoo today. Black women look deformed in the face and like butchers, plus I know you still talk to tuckie 

  • 2 months ago

    Jared Diamond answered that question in depth with his book: Guns, Germs & Steel.

  • 2 months ago

    Neither the Inca nor Aztec, the two great empires of the Western Hemisphere, ever developed the technology needed for further conquests--note how quickly relatively few Spanish defeated each.

    The Mongol conquests penetrated Europe as far as western Poland and Hungary--and decided it wasn't worth further effort, instead falling into a civil war of succession of their next Khan.

     China actually sent out an exploring fleet that reached Africa, and decided to abandon further expansion, instead essentially settling into self-satisfaction as the Middle Kingdom.

  • 2 months ago

    People talk as if Europeans were uniquely evil in "conquering the planet". You can be absolutely certain that WHATEVER countries had first developed the necessary ship-building technology and navigational skills would have "conquered the planet". It just happened that Europeans had the culture that allowed innovation, the society that allowed entrepreneurs their heads, and the technology that allowed them to set off into practically unknown parts of the world.

    WHY Europe had all these advantages is the real question, and the answer is to be found in (very broadly speaking) its liberal, generally tolerant Judaeo-Christian roots. If other cultures could have had the same technology we can only suppose their societal arrangements got in the way: that they relied too much on forced labour, and dictatorship from above, both of which tend to stifle enterprise.

    Whole shelves in libraries are filled with books discussing exactly these questions.

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  • Ludwig
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    The Inca attempted this.  They launched great battle fleets of stone canoes to overwhelm the continent of Europe and shores of Africa.  Unfortunately, their lack of knowledge of the wheel meant that when they managed to beach their stone canoes on the shore, they couldn't move them any further. 

  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    Because they were at the time militarily and economically far superior when it was possible due to interventions (industrial revolutions, but even before, since the late 15th century when science become much more influential) and when the rest of the world was far behind technologically.

    Besides, Muslims and Mongols attacked and conquered much territory in Asia, Africa and Europe.  Muslims were only in Arabia before they attacked the Byzantine and Sassanid-Persian Empire and later conquered regions in African before invading Western Europe over four centuries before the first Crusade.

  • ?
    Lv 5
    2 months ago

    Inca didn't discover horses steel guns or even the wheel  they had a very large empire. China had a history of barbarians at the gates and Mongolia is not a very inviting land full of steepe and desert  China had to deal with Japan in the south China Sea. 1400's Genghis Kahn Conquered China India Russia middle East all the way to Poland This opened Europe to Asia along the Silk road 

  • 2 months ago

    Neither one had massive wars that made colonization practical.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    2 months ago

    Ever heard of the Mongolian conquests? Ever heard of the muslim conquests? Learn some world history..

  • Anonymous
    2 months ago

    The Chinese did. They just got beaten back. As for the Inca, they weren't seafaring and never got to the greater part of the world, the giant interconnected mass of Europe, Africa, and Asia. I mean, they might've gotten it together if they weren't completely wiped out only about 30 or so years after the Spaniards showed up by the diseases the Spaniards brought with them, diseases Europeans had been building immunities to for millennia. 

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