? asked in Politics & GovernmentPolitics · 4 months ago

If Trump should lose Florida by a small margin, in the next election, will Michael Bloomberg's bribing of felons result in legal action.?

Update:

Bloomberg may not be telling them who to vote for but he is creating debt of gratitude which amounts to a bribe, to support his views. 

Update 2:

I'm not talking about a legal action necessarily against Bloomberg himself, but the Florida result. 

6 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    4 months ago

    Bloomberg only paid their fines so they would be eligible to vote. He never made anyone agree to vote, and he certainly never told anyone who to vote for. Your logic just shows that you know trump can’t win without suppressing votes. 

  • 4 months ago

    He didn't really bribe them, in that he didn't pay them the money, and the payments weren't contingent on them voting.  He wanted them to be able to vote, if they want, but they don't have to.

  • S
    Lv 7
    4 months ago

    there is no bribing. you are free to pay someone's fines. Nothing illegal here.

  • Anonymous
    4 months ago

    Enfranchising felons isn't bribery, it is promoting democracy.

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  • Anonymous
    4 months ago

    I'm sure some highly motivated yet profoundly stupid conservative will try to sue Bloomberg for nonexistent violations of the law.

  • Anonymous
    4 months ago

    Bloomberg is not telling them to vote or even who to vote for - so it's a non-issue.  He's just paying their fine.

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