Why would Jesus command us "You MUST be born again of the spirit" (Jn 3:5-7) if not "DEAD spirits" (Rm 5:12-14; I Cor 15:21-22)?

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  • 1 month ago

    What happened to "water" in John 3:5?  So conveniently left out of that context, AS USUAL!  1 Pet. 3:21, Acts 22:16.

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    • Williams1 month agoReport

      Because you've already been born of the water (I Cor 15:46).  Don't you know how you were born the FIRST time?  That's why Jesus said born (((AGAIN))) but this time (((of the spirit))). 

      I Peter 3:21 IS A LIE because JESUS SAVES (Mk 16:16) and NOT water

      Acts 22:16 is Paul recalling what happened 

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  • Dave D
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    The two passages you cite say nothing about "dead spirits".  The Spirit of God speaks to everyone through their conscience.  This is the focal event of the A & E story which is referred to in the passages you cited.

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    • Williams1 month agoReport

      Don't you know what (((WAIT))) for ***THE PROMISE*** means (Acts 1:4)?

      Jesus told us (((WHO))) ***THE PROMISE*** is in the very NEXT VERSE (Acts 1:5).

      IGNORANT!Q

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  • 1 month ago

    i dont think hes talking about dead spirits

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    • Williams1 month agoReport

      Prophesied in the Old Testament (Ezk 37:9), Jesus promised in the New Testament  (John 3:5-8) and FULFILLED under the New Covenant (Acts 2:2-4).

      "SIMPLE" (II Cor 11:3) as 1, 2,, 3!

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