Lv 5
EXZTNZ asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 7 months ago

Was Germany the starter and loser of both the World Wars?

8 Answers

  • 1465
    Lv 6
    7 months ago
    Favourite answer

    Starter - no. Loser - yes.

    WW1 actually started because Germany was trying to play peace-keeper. The official version claims that it was the assassination of Archduke Ferdinand that started the war - it did not. The assassination of Archduke Ferdinand started a conflict between Serbia and Austria-Hungary that could have been settled between the two had everyone else stayed out of it.

    The Soviets, however, decided that they would jump in on Serbia's side and threaten to get involved with the conflict. It wasn't until this point that Germany sided with Austria-Hungary - doing nothing more than warning the Soviets to stay out of it.

    Had the Soviets heeded the warning, still, no war would have taken place. But they didn't and this brought Britain and France into the fray.

    Thus, Germany didn't start the war - they were the only ones who tried to prevent it. But they were sure the ones who paid the price for it.

    Britain and France again play a central role in starting WW2. To understand what happened here, you'd have to educate yourself on what was going on in the political arena during the Weimar years that resulted in Hitler coming to power. Most people are unwilling to do this - they want to jump directly from the Versailles Treaty to Hitler and proclaim "it was all Hitler's fault - he wanted war".

    What Britain and, particularly, France did to Germany through the Versailles Treaty amounted to political genocide designed to forever cripple Germany. There was even a book written by a Jewish author named Theodore Kaufman which proposed that every German be sterilized so that he would be incapable of procreating so that the German population would die out.

    The Treaty was illegal in that it violated international law regarding the right of self-determination. The German people suffered for 14 years because of this. It took a man like Adolf Hitler to take back Germany's right to exist.

    It was this that led up to the war - those who imposed the Versailles Treaty tried to stop him from restoring Germany back to its rightful heirs. It was the Zionists (better known as "Jews", although they're not the same - you need to know the difference to understand this and why what they did had such a profound effect on Germany) who declared war on Germany just 53 days into his role as Chancellor - and within another 4 months, they would start accusing him of exterminating Jews. Check out the link to see why this is preposterous.

    Britain, on the other hand, was in league with FDR in provoking a war with Hitler. FDR's failed New Deal programs resulted in finding another way to pull the United States out of the Great Depression - he needed to create employment. And nothing creates employment like a war.

    He couldn't get the support he needed to get involved directly, so he provoked Japan into attacking Pearl Harbor to force Congressional support.

    Stalin tried to get Britain to join them in attacking Germany before Hitler invaded Poland. That plan was scrapped after learning that Britain's military strength was inadequate. It was then that Stalin signed the Non-Aggression pact with Germany to buy time until Britain could get its act together and create a western front to divide and weaken Germany.

    Britain's inadequate military didn't stop them from giving false assurances to Poland, however. They promised to give them military support in the event of an attack - support which never came because Britain didn't have the means to back up their promise. It was all a con to manipulate Poland into provoking an attack by Hitler, giving Britain justification to declare war on Germany.

    Hitler never wanted war. He tried everything he could to avoid it. Claims of "invading Poland" and the Sudetenland issue are often made to justify the accusations. But the areas Hitler got involved in were areas that belonged to Germany before the Versailles Treaty handed them over to Poland and Czechoslovakia, respectively. Again, this was done illegally - Hitler had every right to have access to the German people and protect them from discrimination and persecution by those countries that opposed Germany politically.

    The link below proves that the "6 million" claims against Hitler were already a political issue long before he came to power. In many of these newspapers, you'll also find references to threats of "extermination".

    These media articles were common occurrences as far back as 1891 and published by the same Zionists that accused Hitler of exterminating Jews in 1933, and still continue to promote the "6 million" claims, no matter how many times the "official number" has been adjusted.

    It isn't about the Jews, per se. It's about maintaining the "6 million" narrative. It's about exploiting sympathy that feeds the Zionists' justification to exist. It's about indoctrinating generations of people with a fake "gas chamber".

    And, it's about supporting Israel's existence.

    Hitler was accused of "Lebensraum" - a unique word that pertains only to Hitler. It is defined as "land or territory that a country's leaders believe it requires in order to grow and flourish."

    If you look at what's going on with the Israeli/Palestinian conflict today and compare the size of Palestine today with what it was in 1948 when Zionism declared Israel an independent state, you'll see that it is shrunk so much that only tiny areas can be found.

    Isreal is doing the same thing to Palestine that Hitler was accused of doing. But there's no such word for Israel that is commensurate with "Lebensraum". The closest equivalent term is "sanctioned by the countries that condemned Hitler for it".


  • 7 months ago

    Germany didn't start World War I.

    Austria-Hungary started it after Serbian radicals assassinated their Archduke Ferdinand.

    Austria-Hungary demanded Serbia make amends, and Serbia pretty much did, but Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia anyway. 

    Russia, having a defense pact with Serbia declared war on Austria-Hungary, and then Germany having a defense pact with Austria-Hungary declared war on Russia. 

    The whole thing just snowballed from there because many countries had military alliances with many other countries.

  • larry1
    Lv 6
    7 months ago

    In general, yes. 

    German/ Prussian militarism caused WWI although Germany didn't pull the trigger for war all by itself.

    Hitler/Nazis totally started WWII.

    Yes, Germany was the huge loser in both, but not before almost winning.  

  • Anonymous
    7 months ago

    Yes, indeed it was.

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  • 7 months ago

    The starters were Austria & Germany, the loser was the World.

  • 7 months ago

    No, Austria-Hungry started WW1. Germany is no more guilty for the fragile house of cards that was Europe falling down than any other participate in the war.

  • Anonymous
    7 months ago

    Yes, it was all that invading that started it.

  • Anonymous
    7 months ago



    And there will be fanboys and girls who are determined to prove that they didn't.


    See I told you – fangirls gotta predict them. 

    EDIT 2:

    And here come the boys like sheep tripping over themselves to peddle their nonsense.

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