The reason why the devil didn t write the bible is because the bible is a historical book. The Old Testament is the portion which covers the history of the people who would later be known as Jews from the time of creation, through their time as nomads, to tribes then a kingdom. The old testament of the bible lists the genealogy of certain Jewish people, mostly those who would become kings. It lists all of the kings and one queen of Judea as well as the thoughts of the educated people of the time (in the ancient world, much like today, the most wealthy and educated people were priests and religious leaders who could read and write in multiple languages whilst the majority of the population was completely illiterate). The Old Testament also lists the laws of the Jewish people and some of their rituals / religious customs. What possible reason could the devil have for recording that, when the average person who hasn t read the bible refuses to believe that the bible isn t some sort of grimoire of hatred?
The New Testament records the life of Jesus according to 4 different gospels, 3 of which it is speculated come from an earlier source and the third which is supposedly the first hand account of Jesus favourite (but unnamed) disciple. (Jesus had more than 12 disciples btw). The rest of the New Testament is the history of the early church, when most Christians were Jewish, and correspondence between the apostles and those churches. Then there is a prophesy at the end.
What reason would the devil have for recording the history of the Jews or early Christians? What reason would he have for recording any ancient history that still survives to this day? Why would the devil write a historical account that can and is confirmed in other secular histories and by biblical archaeology? Certain people claim that Jesus did not exist but his execution is mentioned in The Annuals by Tacitus, who had no reason to mention it at all. Did the devil deceive him too? If so, how much of any history should be actually believe? Only the one that agrees with what pleases us?
The basis of your question is in bigotry because the fact that you think that "the bad one" could have written the bible to deceive people would suggest that you ve never read the bible without bias (if at all) and subscribe to the anti-Christian rhetoric which claims that the bible is a hate filled manuscript which encourages the oppression of women, black people and homosexuals. Actually it doesn t and it would be nice if people actually did a little research into history for themselves before believing the propaganda spewed by the popular media.
BSc (Hons) Archaeology